Units 05–07 Cumulative Chapter Test

1. [Unit 05] Which sequence increases in ecological scale?

1. Organism → population → community → ecosystem
2. Population → organism → ecosystem → community
3. Community → organism → population → ecosystem
4. Ecosystem → community → population → organism

2. [Unit 05] Which statement is a direct observation?

1. The ecosystem will collapse
2. Twelve individuals were counted in a 10 m transect
3. The organism evolved this trait because it needed it
4. Shade caused the species decline

3. [Unit 05] Which statement correctly distinguishes habitat and niche?

1. Niche is only body size
2. Habitat is a genome
3. Habitat is location; niche includes role and resource use
4. They are always identical

4. [Unit 05] Why can removal of one species affect several others?

1. Every species eats every other species
2. Energy cycles forever
3. Abiotic conditions never matter
4. Food webs contain direct and indirect interactions

5. [Unit 05] A trophic level receives 320 kJ from a preceding level with 4,000 kJ. Efficiency is:

1. 8%
2. 12.5%
3. 80%
4. 6%

6. [Unit 05] Which process converts atmospheric nitrogen into biologically available forms?

1. Combustion
2. Nitrogen fixation
3. Respiration
4. Evaporation

7. [Unit 05] A sample contains counts 4, 4, 4, and 4 for four species. Compared with counts 13, 1, 1, and 1, the first sample has:

1. Fewer total organisms
2. Lower richness
3. The same richness and greater evenness
4. No biodiversity

8. [Unit 05] A population changes from 800 to 680. What is the percentage change?

1. −12%
2. 15%
3. 85%
4. −15%

9. [Unit 05] Which condition violates a simple mark–recapture assumption?

1. Marked animals become much easier to capture than unmarked animals
2. The study interval is short
3. Marks remain identifiable
4. Marked individuals mix into the population

10. [Unit 05] A predator and prey time series shows opposite trends. What additional evidence strengthens a causal explanation?

1. Removal of inconvenient years
2. Feeding records, prey survival, vegetation, disease, weather, and alternative-factor analysis
3. A single graph title
4. A personal preference

11. [Unit 05] Which statement avoids teleological language?

1. The drug created only useful mutations
2. Bacteria became resistant because they wanted to survive
3. Antibiotic exposure favored resistant variants that left more descendants
4. Every bacterium intentionally changed its DNA

12. [Unit 05] Which process creates new alleles?

1. Selection alone
2. Independent assortment alone
3. Migration alone
4. Mutation

13. [Unit 05] A measured allele-frequency shift across generations is commonly classified as:

1. Microevolution
2. A theological proof
3. A fossil ancestor
4. No biological change

14. [Unit 05] Which provides direct evidence relevant to speciation in living populations?

1. One individual changing species during life
2. Reduced interbreeding or reproductive compatibility between diverging populations
3. A drawing without data
4. A claim that no boundaries exist

15. [Unit 05] Which statement is consistent with the standard biological use of macroevolution?

1. It is identical to abiogenesis
2. It requires a sudden jump by one individual
3. It includes speciation and diversification across lineages
4. It means acquired traits during one lifetime

16. [Unit 05] Which statement about fossil evidence is accurate?

1. Every fossil includes its family tree
2. Fossils cannot be measured
3. Fossil classifications never change
4. Fossils can preserve anatomy and context but rarely identify a direct parent–descendant pair

17. [Unit 05] Why is a ladder model of horse evolution misleading?

1. The record is interpreted as branching, with coexisting forms and extinct side branches
2. Modern horses have many functional toes
3. DNA proves every fossil is a parent
4. No equids existed

18. [Unit 05] Which sequence moves from most direct to most interpretive?

1. Worldview conclusion → measurement → specimen
2. Specimen → measurement → classification → ancestry inference → worldview conclusion
3. Ancestry inference → specimen → measurement
4. Classification → specimen → observation

19. [Unit 05] Which statement is correct?

1. It makes every supernatural claim experimentally testable
2. It proves atheism
3. It is a method that seeks testable natural mechanisms and does not itself settle theological truth
4. It requires creationism to be mocked

20. [Unit 05] Which student response should receive the stronger score?

1. One that attacks another student’s faith
2. One that refuses to cite sources
3. One that repeats a preferred conclusion but misstates evidence
4. One that accurately classifies evidence, fairly represents alternatives, and supports a reasoned conclusion

21. [Unit 06] Which sample is a compound?

1. Pure sodium chloride
2. Air
3. Copper metal
4. Oxygen gas

22. [Unit 06] Which observation led Thomson to infer negatively charged particles within atoms?

1. Atoms were visible in a microscope
2. Cathode rays were deflected by electric and magnetic fields
3. Gold foil produced alpha particles
4. All gases had identical spectra

23. [Unit 06] In Rutherford scattering, most alpha particles passed through foil. This supports the inference that atoms are:

1. Made only of electrons
2. Without nuclei
3. Mostly empty space at that scale
4. Uniform solid spheres

24. [Unit 06] Why did atomic models change over time?

1. Scientists agreed never to test them
2. The proton count changed historically
3. Models are personal opinions only
4. New evidence exposed limitations and supported revised models

25. [Unit 06] Which set of relative charges is correct for proton, neutron, electron?

1. +1, 0, −1
2. −1, 0, +1
3. +1, −1, 0
4. 0, +1, −1

26. [Unit 06] A neutral atom contains 8 protons and 10 neutrons. Which statement is correct?

1. It is neon-18 with 10 electrons
2. It is oxygen-18 with 8 electrons
3. It is fluorine-18 with 8 electrons
4. It is oxygen-10 with 18 electrons

27. [Unit 06] A particle has 13 protons and 10 electrons. It is:

1. Ne³⁺
2. Mg²⁺
3. Al³⁺
4. Al³⁻

28. [Unit 06] In the notation ³⁹₁₉K, the lower number represents:

1. Mass number
2. Neutron number
3. Electron charge
4. Atomic number

29. [Unit 06] Which property differs between neutral chlorine-35 and chlorine-37 atoms?

1. Neutron number
2. Element identity
3. Proton number
4. Electron arrangement

30. [Unit 06] An element has isotope masses 10 and 11 with abundances 20% and 80%. Its weighted mass is:

1. 10.5
2. 10.8
3. 21
4. 10.2

31. [Unit 06] Which statement about standard atomic weight is most accurate?

1. It is identical for every isotope
2. It is always a whole-number mass number
3. It may be a weighted value or interval reflecting natural isotope composition
4. It equals the proton number

32. [Unit 06] Which configuration belongs to aluminium?

1. 2,8,2
2. 2,8,4
3. 2,7
4. 2,8,3

33. [Unit 06] Which species has configuration 2,8?

1. Na⁺
2. Na atom
3. Cl⁻
4. K⁺

34. [Unit 06] Which element is in Period 4 among the first 20?

1. Chlorine
2. Potassium
3. Sodium
4. Argon

35. [Unit 06] Which pair has related chemical properties because both have one outer electron?

1. Mg and Cl
2. C and Ar
3. Li and K
4. O and Ne

36. [Unit 06] Across Period 3, which general change occurs?

1. Atomic number decreases
2. Occupied shells increase from three to eight
3. All elements form +1 ions
4. Metallic character decreases toward nonmetals

37. [Unit 06] Which property generally increases from lithium to potassium?

1. Reactivity with water
2. Melting point
3. Outer-electron count
4. Ion charge magnitude

38. [Unit 06] Which property generally decreases from fluorine to iodine?

1. Density
2. Reactivity
3. Number of occupied shells
4. Atomic number

39. [Unit 06] A line spectrum contains discrete wavelengths because:

1. All atoms have one electron
2. Visible light has no energy
3. Electron energies occur in allowed states and transitions have specific energy differences
4. The nucleus emits every wavelength

40. [Unit 06] Which statement avoids overstating a model?

1. Electrons are colored balls exactly as shown
2. The nucleus is the same size as the diagram
3. A model cannot be revised
4. The shell model predicts useful outer-electron patterns but does not depict literal fixed paths

41. [Unit 07] Which force is central to ionic bonding?

1. Electrostatic attraction between opposite charges
2. Gravity between molecules
3. Magnetic attraction between neutrons
4. Friction

42. [Unit 07] Which statement best describes a covalent bond?

1. A physical mixture
2. A shared electron pair between atoms
3. A transferred neutron
4. A moving cation

43. [Unit 07] What formula results from K⁺ and O²⁻?

1. K₂O₂
2. KO
3. K₂O
4. KO₂

44. [Unit 07] What formula results from Al³⁺ and SO₄²⁻?

1. Al₃(SO₄)₂
2. AlSO₄
3. Al₂SO₄
4. Al₂(SO₄)₃

45. [Unit 07] Which substance is expected to conduct when molten but not when solid?

1. Sodium chloride
2. Methane
3. Diamond
4. Carbon dioxide

46. [Unit 07] Which property is characteristic of many simple molecular substances?

1. Giant lattices in every case
2. Low melting and boiling points
3. Conductivity from mobile ions in the solid
4. Malleability

47. [Unit 07] Why is diamond hard?

1. Its molecules slide easily
2. It is metallic
3. Its atoms form a three-dimensional covalent network
4. It contains mobile ions

48. [Unit 07] Which statement distinguishes bond polarity from molecular polarity?

1. They are always identical
2. Only ions have polarity
3. Molecules have no geometry
4. A molecule’s shape can cause bond dipoles to cancel or reinforce

49. [Unit 07] Using C=12 and O=16, Mr of CO₂ is:

1. 44
2. 56
3. 28
4. 32

50. [Unit 07] In 2H₂O, the coefficient 2 indicates:

1. A charge
2. Two water molecules or formula units in the represented ratio
3. Two oxygen atoms per molecule
4. A new substance H₄O₂

51. [Unit 07] Which equation balances aluminium oxide formation?

1. Al + O₂ → Al₂O₃
2. 2Al + O₂ → Al₂O₃
3. 4Al + 3O₂ → 2Al₂O₃
4. Al₂ + O₃ → Al₂O₃

52. [Unit 07] Why is mass conserved in a closed ordinary chemical reaction?

1. Energy becomes mass in large amounts
2. New nuclei are formed
3. Gas has no mass
4. The same atoms are rearranged into products

53. [Unit 07] A gas-producing reaction loses measured mass in an open beaker. The best explanation is:

1. Gas left the balance system
2. Atoms were destroyed
3. The law of conservation failed
4. The liquid lost all density

54. [Unit 07] Which observation alone is least sufficient to prove a chemical reaction?

1. New products detected analytically
2. A temperature change without a control
3. A new precipitate with confirmed composition
4. A new gas product collected and identified

55. [Unit 07] CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O is classified as:

1. Electrolysis
2. Freezing
3. Combustion
4. Precipitation

56. [Unit 07] Which sign belongs to an exothermic ΔH?

1. Positive
2. Always zero
3. Undefined
4. Negative

57. [Unit 07] Which statement about a catalyst is accurate?

1. It lowers activation energy but does not change ΔH
2. It increases product energy
3. It is always consumed
4. It changes atom conservation

58. [Unit 07] Why can higher temperature increase rate?

1. Concentration becomes zero
2. More particles exceed activation energy
3. Subscripts change
4. All bonds disappear

59. [Unit 07] At dynamic equilibrium:

1. All molecules stop moving
2. Only products remain
3. Forward and reverse rates are equal
4. Concentrations must be numerically equal

60. [Unit 07] Which action is prohibited?

1. Using published thermochemical data
2. Timing an approved effervescent tablet in water with goggles
3. Analyzing balanced equations
4. Mixing household cleaners to look for a reaction